EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: How can a Backup Administrator configure user permissions and restrict those permissions to tasks such as Guest OS file restores or search for Guest OS files?

Question2: Which statement best describes Virtual Lab Manager?

Question3: Which of the following statements are true when comparing a synthetic full backup to an active full backup, on a NTFS-based Backup Repository? (Choose two.)

Question4: Does the Planned Failover feature shut down the production VM?

Question5: Which types of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (Choose two.)

Question6: When should SQL Server Standard (or higher) be deployed for the instance used by Veeam Backup & Replication instead of the SQL Server Express instance installed by default?

Question7: Veeam Backup & Replication provides specific integration with which of the following deduplicating storage appliances? (Choose three.)

Question8: Which cryptographic algorithm is used in Veeam Backup & Replication for backup-to-disk backup files?

Question9: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature or component is able to utilize SQL transaction log backups for point-in-time restore?

Question10: Which of the following statements is true when a Virtual Lab is deployed without configuring a Proxy Appliance?

Question11: Which of the following statements are true when backing up a Microsoft Exchange 2016 server with Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose two.)

Question12: In a Veeam Backup & Replication simple deployment scenario, the Veeam Backup Server performs the following roles:
-It functions as a management point, coordinates all jobs, controls their scheduling and performs other administrative activities.
-It is used as the default backup repository.
-It is used as a mount server and guest interaction proxy.
On which drive is the Default Backup Repository stored?

Question13: Why is it recommended to install Veeam ONE before Veeam Backup & Replication?

Question14: Since the last remote replica from backup job, the source backup job ran three times, making 3 new restore points. Now the replica from backup job is run again. How many restore points will this replica from backup job create?

Question15: Which transport mode uses the VMware vSphere Hot-Add feature to attach the virtual disks of a source VM to the Backup Proxy VM?

Question16: Which Veeam Backup & Replication feature can be used to keep the production VM online while the production host is patched?

Question17: Which editions of Veeam Availability Suite fully support Native Tape and vCloud Director?

Question18: Under certain circumstances, VMware Changed Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable ckup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT information have on the Veeam backup job?

Question19: The 3-2-1 backup strategy refers to which of the following?

Question20: Which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs can use secondary NetApp systems (SnapMirror and SnapVault) as a data source?

Question21: Which is the main advantage of using SAN snapshots for backups?

Question22: After you selected Incremental mode in the job settings, how do you ensure the forever forward incremental backup mode is configured?

Question23: Which of the following can help to reduce the amount of traffic that is sent over the network during a second run of a replication job?

Question24: Which of the following jobs is NOT affected by parallel processing?

Question25: What is Veeam vPower NFS Service used for?

Question26: Which of the following conditions require Microsoft VSS rather than VMware Tools quiescence? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question27: Which type of jobs can be sent to tape using a "Backup to Tape" job? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question28: If the deduplication settings are changed for an existing job, when will the new settings be applied?

Question29: A Backup Administrator has to achieve minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question30: In Veeam Backup & Replication, encryption works at which of the following levels: (Choose three.)

Question31: Which of the following is leveraged as part of the "Network Mode" transport mode in Veeam Backup & Replication for data transfer from vSphere environments?

Question32: Veeam Explorer for Oracle offers which of the following capabilities? (Choose three.)

Question33: Which of the following objectives is achieved by adding additional proxy servers, in conjunction with parallel processing? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question34: Which of the following statements are true about Veeam Backup Repositories? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question35: Which Veeam Backup & Replication component or service should be added to the scenario below in order to optimize backups to an off-site CIFS share?

Question36: Which of the following are benefits utilizing the Backup from Storage Snapshots feature when backing up virtual machines from a VMware vSphere environment? (Choose two.)

Question37: Which types of data are inducted in a Veeam Backup & Replication configuration backup?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question38: Which of the following statements are true when utilizing a Microsoft Hyper-V Off-Host Backup Proxy? (Choose two)

Question39: Which of the following Veeam products can estimate the required free space needed on target backup repositories?

Question40: What is the stabilization point in a SureBackup job?

Question41: When might a Veeam Backup Administrator choose to use Veeam Management Pack instead of Veeam ONE for monitoring and reporting?

Question42: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft SQL Server offers which of the following capabilities?
(Select 3 options)

Question43: When is Veeam-provided (software level) encryption used for tape media?

Question44: Which of the following refers to the situation when the retention is breached on a forever forward incremental backup?

Question45: Where is the Veeam CBT filter driver installed?

Question46: In order to delete a backup repository from the Veeam Backup & Replication Ul, you must ensure that:

Question47: What is the name of the process Veeam creates for each remote console session?

Question48: Choose the correct statements about Veeam Backup & Replication. (Choose two.)

Question49: Which of the following best describes the Snapshot Hunter feature?

Question50: If the network is disconnected during the data transfer process, the "resume on disconnect" feature will NOT reestablish the connection for which of the following Veeam Backup & Replication jobs?

Question51: Under certain circumstances, VMware Changed Block Tracking (CBT) may be unavailable to Veeam Backup & Replication. What effect will a lack of CBT information have on the Veeam backup job?

Question52: Under what circumstance should the Preferred Networks settings be altered?

Question53: Which of these functionalities rely on the guest OS file system indexing?

Question54: Veeam Explorer for Microsoft Active Directory offers which of the following capabilities?
(Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question55: Does Veeam Backup & Replication support VMware vSphere Hypervisor, a free bare-metal hypervisor?

Question56: A Backup administrator is looking to achieve a minimal RPO. Which of the following setups is most appropriate?

Question57: From within which of the following software products can the Veeam Backup & Replication Infrastructure be remotely monitored when plug-ins/add-ons are installed? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question58: Which of the following editions introduces the Scale-Out Backup Repository feature?

Question59: Where is the Veeam CBT file system filter driver installed?

Question60: Is it possible to create an active full backup manually?

Question61: Which job statistics index can be used to identify the slowest component of the data path of a backup job?

Question62: Which of the following backup file placement policies are available for Scale-Out Backup Repository? (choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question63: Which of the following jobs CANNOT utilize parallel processing?

Question64: Which is a prerequisite in order for the CRC check to be executed during a SureBackup Job?

Question65: Which roles are performed by the client with the remote console installed? (Choose three.)

Question66: What is the lowest interval at which a replication job can be scheduled?

Question67: Which services are installed on every Veeam Backup Proxy server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question68: Which prerequisites are necessary in order to complete a configuration restore on a Veeam Backup & Replication v9.5 Backup Server? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question69: When is it NOT possible to use the single-host configuration for SureReplica verification?

Question70: Which of the following statements is true regarding the Veeam Cloud Connect feature?

Question71: When performing SureBackup recovery verification, Veeam Backup & Replication powers VMs from the Application Group according to what order?

Question72: Choose the correct statement about undoing the failover:

Question73: Extreme compression produces the smallest backup file, but it may also reduce:

Question74: Which of the following actions can be performed to finalize Instant VM Recovery? (Choose the 2 appropriate options)

Question75: A Backup Administrator needs to create an offsite backup job and wants to store the backups on a NFS share at the remote site. Which of the following actions would result in the most optimal configuration?

Question76: Which HPE SAN storage systems are supported by the Backup from Storage Snapshot feature in Veeam Backup & Replication? (Choose the 3 appropriate options)

Question77: Which data is NOT included in a configuration backup?